Tuesday, 28 November 2017

ITIL V3 Foundation Certification Paper 4

ITIL V3 Foundation Certification Paper 4


ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) was launched in June 2007.

ITIL V3 primarily describes the Service Lifecycle of IT Service Management.ITIL, formally an acronym for Information Technology Infrastructure Library, is a set of detailed practices for IT service management (ITSM) that focuses on aligning IT services with the needs of business. In its current form (known as ITIL 2011), ITIL is published as a series of five core volumes, each of which covers a different ITSM lifecycle stage. Although ITIL underpins ISO/IEC 20000 (previously BS 15000), the International Service Management Standard for IT service management, there are some differences between the ISO 20000 standard and the ITIL framework.

ITIL describes processes, procedures, tasks, and checklists which are not organization-specific, but can be applied by an organization for establishing integration with the organization's strategy, delivering value, and maintaining a minimum level of competency. It allows the organization to establish a baseline from which it can plan, implement, and measure. It is used to demonstrate compliance and to measure improvement. (It is to be noted that there is no formal independent 3rd Party Compliance Assessment available for ITIL compliance in an organisation, Certification in ITIL is only available to individuals and relates to their knowledge of the 5 books).

ITIL V3 Exam Questions and Answers

41
  Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of value as created through Services?
  A. Value is defined by the Service Provider
  B. Affordable mix of features
  C. Value changes over time and circumstance
  D. Achievement of objectives
  <ANSWER>Value is defined by the Service Provider</ANSWER>
 

   42
  Which of the following contains details of current and historic usage of IT Service and Components and also includes scenarios predicting business demands?
  A. Configuration Management System
  B. Capacity Plan
  C. Configuration Baseline
  D. Charter
  <ANSWER>Capacity Plan</ANSWER>
 

   43
  Which of the following is defined as the underlying cause of one of more unplanned interruptions to an IT Service?
  A. Incident
  B. Workaround
  C. Problem
  D. Event
  <ANSWER>Problem</ANSWER>
 

   44
  What is the MAIN responsibility of the Service Owner?
  A. Communicate process information or changes as appropriate to ensure awareness
  B. Define all aspects of an IT Service and its requirements throughout each stage of its lifecycle
  C. Provide the overall management of all IT Services
  D. Deliver a specific IT Service
  <ANSWER>Deliver a specific IT Service</ANSWER>
 

   45
  Which of the following is the BEST description of IT Service Management?
  A. The implementation and Management of quality IT Services that meet the needs of the business
  B. An approach that emphasizes the importance of coordination and control across the various functions, processes and systems necessary to manage the full lifecycle of IT Services
  C. The framework of policy, processes, standards, guidelines and tools that ensures an organization can achieve its Information Security Management objectives
  D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of Services
  <ANSWER>The implementation and Management of quality IT Services that meet the needs of the business</ANSWER>
 

   46
  Which of the following describes the “R” in RACI?
  A. The person or people responsible for getting the job done
  B. The person who controls quality and the end results
  C. The people who are sought after for information and advice
  D. People who are kept up to date on progress
  <ANSWER>The person or people responsible for getting the job done</ANSWER>
 

   47
  Continual Service Improvement (CSI) uses various types of metrics to support its activities. Which type of metric is frequently associated with applicationbased metrics?
  A. Process metrics
  B. Technology metrics
  C. Service metrics
  D. Improvement metrics
  <ANSWER>Technology metrics</ANSWER>
 

   48
  Which of the following is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment process?
  A. To provide users with information on service availability and the required steps to obtain them
  B. To manage the lifecycle of all Service Requests from users
  C. To allow users to make use of IT Services, data or other assets
  D. To ensure that normal service operation is restored as quickly and the business impact is minimized
  <ANSWER>To manage the lifecycle of all Service Requests from users</ANSWER>
 

   49
  As a category, Event are of ____________types
  A. Exception
  B. Informational
  C. Informational and exceptions
  D. None of the above
  <ANSWER>Informational and exceptions</ANSWER>
 

   50
  In event notification, a device is interrogated by a management tool, which collects certain targeted data. This is called polling
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>True</ANSWER>
 

   51
  Significance of the events can be categorized as:
  A. Informational
  B. Warning
  C. Exception
  D. All of the above
  <ANSWER>All of the above</ANSWER>
 

   52
  For your Event Management to be effective, it should be designed during:
  A. Service Strategy
  B. Service Design
  C. Service Operation
  D. Service Transition
  <ANSWER>Service Design</ANSWER>
 

   53
  Failed CI cannot be called as incident if service performance does not degrade
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>False</ANSWER>
 

   54
  Incidents can be logged by
  A. Technical Staff
  B. User
  C. Service Desk
  D. All of the above
  <ANSWER>All of the above</ANSWER>
 

   55
  Focus of Incident Management is on
  A. Permanent resolution
  B. Find the cause and fix it
  C. Restore ASAP (AS early As Possible)
  D. Make necessary changes in infrastructure
  <ANSWER>Restore ASAP (AS early As Possible)</ANSWER>
 

   56
  Incident Management team is exempted to follow Change Management process because they are supposed to fix the reported issues and in the process of fixing the issues, they are required to make necessary changes
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>False</ANSWER>
 

   57
  Urgency, Severity, Impact and Priority is related as
  A. Urgency = Priority X Impact
  B. Priority = Urgency X Impact
  C. Severity = Impact X Priority
  D. All are incorrect
  <ANSWER>Priority = Urgency X Impact</ANSWER>
 

   58
  Category in Incident management and category in Problem Management should be
  A. Can be different
  B. Doesn’t matter
  C. Same
  D. They are independent
  <ANSWER>Same</ANSWER>
 

   59
  Primary interface with Request fulfillment process is as below
  A. Service Desk – Incident – Problem and Change
  B. Incident – Problem – Change and Release
  C. Incident – Capacity – Availability and Service Level Management (SLM)
  D. Incident – Release and Configuration Management
  <ANSWER>Incident – Release and Configuration Management</ANSWER>
 

   60
  Challenges faced by Request Fulfillment process come from which combination
  A. People and Process
  B. Process and Technology
  C. People and Technology
  D. None of the above
  <ANSWER>Process and Technology</ANSWER>
 

   61
  As per ITIL, a ‘problem’ is defined as the case of one or more incidents
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>True</ANSWER>
 

   62
  Two major processes for Problem Management are
  A. Error Control and Problem Control
  B. Reactive and Proactive
  C. Error Control and Proactive
  D. Problem Control and Reactive
  <ANSWER>Reactive and Proactive</ANSWER>
 

   63
  Known Error database should be owned by
  A. Configuration Management as part of CMDB
  B. Knowledge Management as part of SKMS
  C. Problem Management
  D. Should be owned by Tools group or KM team
  <ANSWER>Problem Management</ANSWER>
 

   64
  In Service Transition phase, Problem Management interacts with
  A. Change Management
  B. Configuration Management
  C. Release and Deployment Management
  D. All of the above
  <ANSWER>All of the above</ANSWER>
 

   65
  In Service Design, Problem Management deals with
  A. Supplier Management
  B. Transition Planning and Support
  C. Security Management
  D. Capacity Management
  <ANSWER>Capacity Management</ANSWER>
 

   66
  Access Management process is subset of the Availability Management process, whose objective is to ensure that all those authorized should have access to the documents and information:
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>False</ANSWER>
 

   67
  Service Operations team is accountable to find CI discrepancies while working on day to day basis
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>False</ANSWER>
 

   68
  Service Operations team is supposed to update the CI status and details based on
  A. Operations Manager’s approval
  B. Configuration Manager’s approval
  C. Incident Manager’s approval
  D. Operations Management function
  <ANSWER>Configuration Manager’s approval</ANSWER>
 

   69
  Monitoring is performed by Service Operations teams, involved processes are:
  A. Supplier – Service Level Management (SLM) – Service Reporting
  B. Event – Capacity – Availability
  C. SLM – Incident – Problem
  D. Change – Validation – Release
  <ANSWER>Event – Capacity – Availability</ANSWER>
 

   70
  Technical Management function has two responsibilities
  A. Build technical knowledge and deploy resources to support ITSM lifecycle
  B. Custodian of technical knowledge and owners of technically competent resource pool
  C. Custodian of technical knowledge and deploy resources to support ITSM lifecycle
  D. None of the above
  <ANSWER>Custodian of technical knowledge and deploy resources to support ITSM lifecycle</ANSWER>
 

   71
  Discovery tools are used to
  A. Discover issues in the service line
  B. Populate and verify the CMS data and to assist in license management
  C. Discuss CI attributes of all the CI not live in the network
  D. Establish and / or confirm the scope of the service landscape
  <ANSWER>Populate and verify the CMS data and to assist in license management</ANSWER>
 

   72
  Critical Success factors of Service Operations are
  A. Management Support
  B. Business Support
  C. Staffing Support
  D. All of the above
  <ANSWER>All of the above</ANSWER>
 

   73
  Effectiveness and Efficiency is the driver in every facet of the service operations, which of the following statement is true – 1. A measure of whether the objective has been achieved is called effectiveness, 2. A measure of whether right amount of resources has been used to deliver an output is called efficiency
  A. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  B. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
  C. Statement 1 is correct
  D. Statement 2 is correct
  <ANSWER>Both 1 and 2 are correct</ANSWER>
 

   74
  Failure of a Configuration Item not resulting in disruption of service is also called as an incident
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>True</ANSWER>
 

   75
  Knowledge Base and Known Error Database is same
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>False</ANSWER>
 

   76
  Which of the statements are wrong:
  A. MTBF = Mean time Between Failures
  B. MTTR = Mean time to Repair
  C. MTTR = Mean time to Restore Service
  D. MTBSI = Mean time Between System Incidents
  <ANSWER>MTTR = Mean time to Restore Service</ANSWER>
 

   77
  Writing of an equal amount of an asset’s value each year, usually a fixed percentage of cost, is known as …….
  A. Transfer cost
  B. Discounted cash flow
  C. Net Book Value
  D. Depreciating
  <ANSWER>Depreciating</ANSWER>
 

   78
  Utility and Warranty can be explained as Increases performance average and Reduces performance variation
  A. True
  B. False
  <ANSWER>True</ANSWER>
 

   79
  Utility is explained as
  A. It increases gain and it reduces pain
  B. It increases gain or it reduces pain
  C. It creates a balance between gain and pain
  D. None of the above statement is correct explanation
  <ANSWER>It increases gain or it reduces pain</ANSWER>
 

   80
  Four P’s of Service Strategy are
  A. Perspective  Positions  Plan and Pattern
  B. Product  Price  Position and Perception
  C. Product  Plan  Price and Position
  D. Perspective  Perception  Position and Price
  <ANSWER>Perspective  Positions  Plan and Pattern</ANSWER>

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